/* === PHYSL 210 — textbook-derived questions & flashcards (Vander's Human Physiology 16e) === */ /* Auto-generated from sources/textbook/phys_textbook.pdf. Questions kept separate (practice-page source toggle); definitions merged into the flashcard decks. */ const TEXTBOOK_QUESTIONS = { "cell": [ { "q": "Which cell structure contains the enzymes required for oxidative phosphorylation?", "options": [ "inner membrane of mitochondria", "smooth endoplasmic reticulum", "rough endoplasmic reticulum", "outer membrane of mitochondria", "matrix of mitochondria" ], "a": 0, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which sequence regarding protein synthesis is correct?", "options": [ "translation → transcription → mRNA synthesis", "transcription → splicing of primary RNA transcript → translocation of mRNA → translation", "splicing of introns → transcription → mRNA synthesis translation", "transcription → translation → mRNA production", "tRNA enters nucleus → transcription begins → mRNA moves to cytoplasm → protein synthesis begins" ], "a": 1, "e": "Transcription refers to the conversion of a gene's DNA into RNA; translation is the conversion of mRNA into protein.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "Which is incorrect regarding ligand–protein-binding reactions?", "options": [ "Allosteric modulation of the protein's binding site occurs directly at the binding site itself.", "Allosteric modulation can alter the affinity of the protein for the ligand.", "Phosphorylation of the protein is an example of covalent modulation.", "If two ligands can bind to the binding site of the protein, competition for binding will occur.", "Binding reactions are either electrical or hydrophobic in nature." ], "a": 0, "e": "Allosteric modulation occurs at a site separate from the ligand-binding site. The resulting change in three-dimensional structure of the protein may enhance or reduce the ability of the protein to bind its ligand.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "According to the law of mass action, in the following reaction, CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3", "options": [ "increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide will slow down the forward (left-to-right) reaction.", "increasing the concentration of carbonic acid will accelerate the rate of the reverse (right-to-left) reaction.", "increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide will speed up the reverse reaction.", "decreasing the concentration of carbonic acid will slow down the forward reaction.", "no enzyme is required for either the forward or reverse reaction." ], "a": 1, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which of the following can be used to synthesize glucose by gluconeogenesis in the liver?", "options": [ "fatty acid", "triglyceride", "glycerol", "glycogen", "ATP" ], "a": 2, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Which of the following is true?", "options": [ "Triglycerides have the least energy content per gram of the three major energy sources in the body.", "Fat catabolism generates new triglycerides for storage in adipose tissue.", "By mass, the total-body content of carbohydrates exceeds that of total triglycerides.", "Catabolism of fatty acids occurs in two-carbon steps.", "Triglycerides are the major lipids found in plasma membranes." ], "a": 3, "e": "Catabolism refers to the breakdown of fatty acids into usable forms for the production of ATP.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which properties are characteristic of ion channels?", "options": [ "They are usually lipids.", "They exist on one side of the plasma membrane, usually the intracellular side.", "They can open and close depending on the presence of any of three types of “gates.”", "They permit movement of ions against electrochemical gradients.", "They mediate facilitated diffusion." ], "a": 2, "e": "Channels are proteins that span the membrane and are opened by ligands, voltage, or mechanical stimuli.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which of the following does not directly or indirectly require an energy source?", "options": [ "primary active transport", "operation of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump", "the mechanism used by cells to produce a calcium ion gradient across the plasma membrane", "facilitated transport of glucose across a plasma membrane", "secondary active transport" ], "a": 3, "e": "Facilitated diffusion does not require ATP. Recall that secondary active transport indirectly requires ATP because ion pumps were required to establish the electrochemical gradient for a particular ion (such as Na+).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "If a small amount of urea were added to an isoosmotic saline solution containing cells, what would be the result?", "options": [ "The cells would shrink and remain that way.", "The cells would first shrink but then be restored to normal volume after a brief period of time.", "The cells would swell and remain that way.", "The cells would first swell but then be restored to normal volume after a brief period of time.", "The urea would have no effect, even transiently." ], "a": 1, "e": "After the initial movement of water out of the cells due to osmosis, the urea concentration quickly equilibrates across each cell’s plasma membrane, removing any osmotic stimulus.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Which is/are true of epithelial cells?", "options": [ "They can only move uncharged molecules across their surfaces.", "They may have segregated functions on apical (luminal) and basolateral surfaces.", "They cannot form tight junctions.", "They depend upon the activity of Na+/K+-ATPase pumps for much of their transport functions.", "Both b and d are correct." ], "a": 4, "e": "Segregation of function on different surfaces of the cell and the ability to secrete chemicals (for example, from the pancreas) are two of the most important features of epithelial cells.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which is incorrect?", "options": [ "Diffusion of a solute through a membrane is considerably quicker than diffusion of the same solute through a water layer of equal thickness.", "A single ion, such as K+, can diffuse through more than one type of channel.", "Lipid-soluble solutes diffuse more readily through the phospholipid bilayer of a plasma membrane than do water-soluble ones.", "The rate of facilitated diffusion of a solute is limited by the number of transporters in the membrane at any given time.", "A common example of cotransport is that of an ion and an organic molecule." ], "a": 0, "e": "Diffusion is slowed by the resistance of a membrane.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "In considering diffusion of ions through an ion channel, which driving force/forces must be considered?", "options": [ "the ion concentration gradient", "the electrical gradient", "osmosis", "facilitated diffusion", "both a and b" ], "a": 4, "e": "Because ions are charged, both the chemical and the electrical gradients determine their rate and direction of diffusion.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "1–3: Match a receptor feature (a–e) with each choice. Defines the situation when all receptor binding sites are occupied by a messenger", "options": [ "affinity", "saturation", "competition", "down-regulation", "specificity" ], "a": 1, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "7–10: Match each type of molecule with the correct choice (a–e); a given choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Molecule: enzyme", "options": [ "neurotransmitter or hormone", "cAMP-dependent protein kinase", "calmodulin", "Ca2+", "alpha subunit of G proteins" ], "a": 1, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "1–3: Match a receptor feature (a–e) with each choice. Defines the strength of receptor binding to a messenger", "options": [ "affinity", "saturation", "competition", "down-regulation", "specificity" ], "a": 0, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "1–3: Match a receptor feature (a–e) with each choice. Reflects the fact that a receptor normally binds only to a single messenger", "options": [ "affinity", "saturation", "competition", "down-regulation", "specificity" ], "a": 4, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Which of the following intracellular or plasma membrane proteins requires Ca2+ for full activity?", "options": [ "calmodulin", "janus kinase (JAK)", "cAMP-dependent protein kinase", "guanylyl cyclase" ], "a": 0, "e": "calmodulin. Calmodulin is a calcium-binding protein that is inactive in the absence of Ca2+.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which is correct?", "options": [ "cAMP-dependent protein kinase phosphorylates tyrosine residues.", "Protein kinase C is activated by cAMP.", "The subunit of Gs proteins that activates adenylyl cyclase is the beta subunit.", "Lipid-soluble messengers typically act on receptors in the cell cytosol or nucleus.", "The binding site of a typical plasma membrane receptor for its messenger is located on the cytosolic surface of the receptor." ], "a": 3, "e": "Lipid-soluble messengers typically act on receptors in the cell cytosol or nucleus. Lipid-soluble messengers cross the plasma membrane and act primarily on cytosolic and nuclear receptors.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Inhibition of which enzyme/enzymes would inhibit the conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotrienes?", "options": [ "cyclooxygenase", "lipoxygenase", "phospholipase A2", "adenylyl cyclase", "both b and c" ], "a": 1, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "7–10: Match each type of molecule with the correct choice (a–e); a given choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Molecule: second messenger", "options": [ "neurotransmitter or hormone", "cAMP-dependent protein kinase", "calmodulin", "Ca2+", "alpha subunit of G proteins" ], "a": 3, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "7–10: Match each type of molecule with the correct choice (a–e); a given choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Molecule: example of a first messenger", "options": [ "neurotransmitter or hormone", "cAMP-dependent protein kinase", "calmodulin", "Ca2+", "alpha subunit of G proteins" ], "a": 0, "e": "neurotransmitter or hormone. Neurotransmitters and hormones are just two of many types of ligands that act as signaling molecules and first messengers, via their binding to a receptor.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "7–10: Match each type of molecule with the correct choice (a–e); a given choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Molecule: part of a trimeric protein in membranes", "options": [ "neurotransmitter or hormone", "cAMP-dependent protein kinase", "calmodulin", "Ca2+", "alpha subunit of G proteins" ], "a": 4, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5 · Recall Q9" } ], "blood": [ { "q": "Which of the following is an opsonin?", "options": [ "IL-2", "C1 protein", "C3b protein", "C-reactive protein", "membrane attack complex" ], "a": 2, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which is/are important in innate immune responses?", "options": [ "interferons", "clonal inactivation", "lymphocyte activation", "secretion of antibodies from plasma cells", "class 1 MHC proteins" ], "a": 0, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "A second exposure to a given foreign antigen elicits a rapid and pronounced immune response because", "options": [ "passive immunity occurs after the first exposure.", "some B cells differentiate into memory B cells after the first exposure.", "a greater number of antigen-presenting cells are available due to the earlier exposure.", "the array of class II MHC proteins expressed by antigen-presenting cells is permanently altered by the first exposure.", "Both a and b are correct." ], "a": 1, "e": "some B cells differentiate into memory B cells after the first exposure. This is known as active immunity.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Which statement is incorrect?", "options": [ "The most abundant immunoglobulins in serum are IgG and IgM antibodies.", "IgG antibodies are involved in adaptive immune responses against bacteria and viruses in the extracellular fluid.", "IgM antibodies are primarily involved in immune defense mechanisms found in the surface or lining of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and genitourinary tracts.", "All antibodies of a given class have an Fc portion that is identical in amino acid sequence.", "Antibodies can exist at the surface of a B cell or be circulating freely in the blood." ], "a": 2, "e": "IgM antibodies are primarily involved in immune defense mechanisms found in the surface or lining of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and genitourinary tracts. IgA antibodies act in this way.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Hematocrit is increased", "options": [ "when a person has a vitamin B12 deficiency.", "by an increase in secretion of erythropoietin.", "when the number of white blood cells is increased.", "by a hemorrhage.", "in response to excess oxygen delivery to the kidneys." ], "a": 1, "e": "by an increase in secretion of erythropoietin. Reduced oxygen delivery to the kidneys increases the secretion of erythropoietin, which stimulates bone marrow to increase production of erythrocytes.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which is not part of the cascade leading to formation of a blood clot?", "options": [ "contact between the blood and collagen found outside the blood vessels", "prothrombin converted to thrombin", "formation of a stabilized fibrin mesh", "activated platelets", "secretion of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) by endothelial cells" ], "a": 4, "e": "secretion of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) by endothelial cells. t-PA is part of the fibrinolytic system that dissolves clots.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q15" }, { "q": "The principal site of erythrocyte production is", "options": [ "the liver.", "the kidneys.", "the bone marrow.", "the spleen.", "the lymph nodes." ], "a": 2, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q2" } ], "nms": [ { "q": "Which is a false statement about skeletal muscle structure?", "options": [ "A myofibril is composed of multiple muscle fibers.", "Most skeletal muscles attach to bones by connective-tissue tendons.", "Each end of a thick filament is surrounded by six thin filaments.", "A cross-bridge is a portion of the myosin molecule.", "Thin filaments contain actin, tropomyosin, and troponin." ], "a": 0, "e": "A single skeletal muscle fiber, or cell, is composed of many myofibrils.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Single-unit smooth muscle differs from multiunit smooth muscle because", "options": [ "single-unit muscle contraction speed is slow, and multiunit muscle contraction speed is fast.", "single-unit muscle has T-tubules, and multiunit muscle does not.", "single-unit muscles are not innervated by autonomic nerves.", "single-unit muscle contracts when stretched, whereas multiunit muscle does not.", "single-unit muscle does not produce action potentials spontaneously, but multiunit muscle does." ], "a": 3, "e": "Stretching a sheet of single-unit smooth muscle cells opens mechanically gated ion channels, which causes a depolarization that propagates through gap junctions, followed by Ca2+ entry and contraction. This does not occur in multiunit smooth muscle.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Which of the following describes a similarity between cardiac and smooth muscle cells?", "options": [ "An action potential always precedes contraction.", "The majority of the Ca2+ that activates contraction comes from the extracellular fluid.", "Action potentials are generated by slow waves.", "An extensive system of T-tubules is present.", "Ca2+ release and contraction strengths are graded." ], "a": 4, "e": "The amount of Ca2+ released during a typical resting heartbeat exposes less than half of the thin filament cross-bridge binding sites. Autonomic neurotransmitters and hormones can increase or decrease the amount of Ca2+ released to the cytosol during EC coupling, producing a graded contraction as occurs in smooth muscle.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q11" }, { "q": "Which is correct regarding a skeletal muscle sarcomere?", "options": [ "M lines are found in the center of the I band.", "The I band is the space between one Z line and the next.", "The H zone is the region where thick and thin filaments overlap.", "Z lines are found in the center of the A band.", "The width of the A band is equal to the length of a thick filament." ], "a": 4, "e": "The dark stripe in a striated muscle that constitutes the A band results from the aligned thick filaments within myofibrils, so thick filament length is equal to A-band width.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "When a skeletal muscle fiber undergoes a concentric isotonic contraction,", "options": [ "M lines remain the same distance apart.", "Z lines move closer to the ends of the A bands.", "A bands become shorter.", "I bands become wider.", "M lines move closer to the end of the A band." ], "a": 1, "e": "As filaments slide during a shortening contraction, the I band becomes narrower, so the distance between the Z line and the thick filaments (at the end of the A band) must decrease.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "During excitation–contraction coupling in a skeletal muscle fiber,", "options": [ "the Ca2+-ATPase pumps Ca2+ into the T-tubule.", "action potentials propagate along the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.", "Ca2+ floods the cytosol through the dihydropyridine (DHP) receptors.", "DHP receptors trigger the opening of terminal cisternae ryanodine receptor Ca2+ channels.", "acetylcholine opens the DHP receptor channel." ], "a": 3, "e": "DHP receptors act as voltage sensors in the T-tubule membrane and are physically linked to ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. When an action potential depolarizes the T-tubule membrane, DHP receptors change conformation and trigger the opening of the ryanodine receptors. This allows Ca2+ to diffuse from the interior of the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Why is the latent period longer during an isotonic twitch of a skeletal muscle fiber than it is during an isometric twitch?", "options": [ "Excitation–contraction coupling is slower during an isotonic twitch.", "Action potentials propagate more slowly when the fiber is shortening, so extra time is required to activate the entire fiber.", "In addition to the time for excitation–contraction coupling, it takes extra time for enough cross-bridges to attach to make the tension in the muscle fiber greater than the load.", "Fatigue sets in much more quickly during isotonic contractions, and when muscles are fatigued the cross-bridges move much more slowly.", "The latent period is longer because isotonic twitches occur only in slow (type I) muscle fibers." ], "a": 2, "e": "In an isometric twitch, tension begins to rise as soon as excitation–contraction is complete and the first cross-bridges begin to attach. In an isotonic twitch, excitation–contraction coupling takes the same amount of time, but the fiber is delayed from shortening until after enough cross-bridges have attached to move the load.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "What prevents a drop in muscle fiber ATP concentration during the first few seconds of intense contraction?", "options": [ "Because cross-bridges are pre-energized, ATP is not needed until several cross-bridge cycles have been completed.", "ADP is rapidly converted back to ATP by creatine phosphate.", "Glucose is metabolized in glycolysis, producing large quantities of ATP.", "The mitochondria immediately begin oxidative phosphorylation.", "Fatty acids are rapidly converted to ATP by oxidative glycolysis." ], "a": 1, "e": "In the first few seconds of exercise, mass action favors transfer of the high-energy phosphate from creatine phosphate to ADP by the enzyme creatine kinase.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which correctly characterizes a “fast-oxidative-glycolytic” type of skeletal muscle fiber?", "options": [ "few mitochondria and high glycogen content", "low myosin ATPase rate and few surrounding capillaries", "low glycolytic enzyme activity and intermediate contraction velocity", "high myoglobin content and intermediate glycolytic enzyme activity", "small fiber diameter and fast onset of fatigue" ], "a": 3, "e": "Fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers are an intermediate type that are designed to contract rapidly but to resist fatigue. They utilize both aerobic and anaerobic energy systems; thus, they are red fibers with high myoglobin (which facilitates production of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation), but they also have a moderate ability to generate ATP through glycolytic pathways. (Refer to Table 9.3.)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Which is true regarding the structure of smooth muscle?", "options": [ "The thin filament includes the regulatory protein troponin.", "The thick and thin filaments are organized in sarcomeres.", "Thin filaments are anchored to dense bodies instead of Z lines.", "The cells have multiple nuclei.", "Single-unit smooth muscles do not have gap junctions connecting individual cells." ], "a": 2, "e": "In smooth muscle cells, dense bodies serve the same functional role as Z lines do in striated muscle cells—they serve as the anchoring point for the thin filaments.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "The function of myosin light-chain kinase in smooth muscle is to", "options": [ "bind to calcium ions to initiate excitation–contraction coupling.", "phosphorylate cross-bridges, thus driving them to bind with the thin filament.", "split ATP to provide the energy for the power stroke of the cross-bridge cycle.", "dephosphorylate myosin light chains of the cross-bridge, thus relaxing the muscle.", "pump Ca2+ from the cytosol back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum." ], "a": 1, "e": "When myosin-light-chain kinase transfers a phosphate group from ATP to the myosin light chains of the cross-bridges, binding and cycling of cross-bridges are activated.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9 · Recall Q9" }, { "q": "Which best describes an afferent neuron?", "options": [ "The cell body is in the CNS, and the peripheral axon terminal is in the skin.", "The cell body is in the dorsal root ganglion, and the central axon terminal is in the spinal cord.", "The cell body is in the ventral horn of the spinal cord, and the axon ends on skeletal muscle.", "The afferent terminals are in the PNS, and the axon terminal is in the dorsal root.", "All parts of the cell are within the CNS." ], "a": 1, "e": "Afferent neurons have peripheral axon terminals associated with sensory receptors, cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglion of the spinal cord, and central axon terminals that project into the spinal cord.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which incorrectly pairs a glial cell type with an associated function?", "options": [ "astrocytes; formation of the blood–brain barrier", "microglia; performance of immune function in the CNS", "oligodendrocytes; formation of myelin sheaths on axons in the PNS", "ependymal cells; regulation of production of cerebrospinal fluid", "astrocytes; removal of potassium ions and neurotransmitters from the brain’s extracellular fluid" ], "a": 2, "e": "Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "If the extracellular Cl− concentration is 110 mmol/L and a particular neuron maintains an intracellular Cl− concentration of 4 mmol/L, at what membrane potential would Cl− be closest to electrochemical equilibrium in that cell?", "options": [ "+80 mV", "+60 mV", "0 mV", "−86 mV", "−100 mV" ], "a": 3, "e": "Insert the given chloride ion concentrations into the Nernst equation; remember to use −1 as the valence (Z).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Consider the following five experiments in which the concentration gradient for Na+ was varied. In which case(s) would Na+ tend to leak out of the cell if the membrane potential was experimentally held at +42 mV? Experiment / Extracellular Na+ (mmol/L) / Intracellular Na+ (mmol/L): A, 50, 15; B, 60, 15; C, 70, 15; D, 80, 15; E, 90, 15.", "options": [ "A only", "B only", "C only", "A, B, and C", "D and E" ], "a": 3, "e": "A, B, and C all are correct. Using the Nernst equation to calculate the Na+ equilibrium potential gives values of +31, +36, and +40 mV for A, B, and C. If the membrane potential was +42 mV, the outward electrical force on Na+ would be greater than the inward concentration gradient, so Na+ would move out of the cell in each of these cases.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which is a true statement about the resting membrane potential in a typical neuron?", "options": [ "The resting membrane potential is closer to the Na+ equilibrium potential than to the K+ equilibrium potential.", "The Cl− permeability is higher than that for Na+ or K+.", "The resting membrane potential is at the equilibrium potential for K+.", "There is no ion movement at the steady resting membrane potential.", "Ion movement by the Na+/K+-ATPase pump is equal and opposite to the leak of ions through Na+ and K+ channels." ], "a": 4, "e": "Neither Na+ nor K+ is in equilibrium at the resting membrane potential, but the action of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump prevents the small but steady leak of both ions from dissipating the concentration gradients.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "If a ligand-gated ion channel equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ was briefly opened at a specific location on the membrane of a typical resting neuron, what would result?", "options": [ "Local currents on the inside of the membrane would flow away from that region.", "Local currents on the outside of the membrane would flow away from that region.", "Local currents would travel without decrement all along the cell’s length.", "A brief local hyperpolarization of the membrane would result.", "Fluxes of Na+ and K+ would be equal, so no local currents would flow." ], "a": 0, "e": "Because Na+ is farther away from its electrochemical equilibrium than is K+, there would be more Na+ entry than K+ exit, causing local depolarization and local current flow that would decrease with distance from the site of the stimulus.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which ion channel state correctly describes the phase of the action potential with which it is associated?", "options": [ "Voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated in a resting neuronal membrane.", "Open voltage-gated K+ channels cause the depolarizing upstroke of the action potential.", "Open voltage-gated K+ channels cause afterhyperpolarization.", "The sizable leak through voltage-gated K+ channels determines the value of the resting membrane potential.", "Opening of voltage-gated Cl− channels is the main factor causing rapid repolarization of the membrane at the end of an action potential." ], "a": 2, "e": "Due to the persistent open state of the voltage-gated K+ channels, for a brief time at the end of an action potential the membrane is hyperpolarized. When the voltage-gated K+ channels eventually close, the K+ leak channels once again determine the resting membrane potential.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Two neurons, A and B, synapse onto a third neuron, C. If neurotransmitter from A opens ligand-gated ion channels permeable to Na+ and K+ and neurotransmitter from B opens ligand-gated Cl− channels, which of the following statements is true?", "options": [ "An action potential in neuron A causes a depolarizing EPSP in neuron B.", "An action potential in neuron B causes a depolarizing EPSP in neuron C.", "Simultaneous action potentials in A and B will cause hyperpolarization of neuron C.", "Simultaneous action potentials in A and B will cause less depolarization of neuron C than if only neuron A fired an action potential.", "An action potential in neuron B will bring neuron C closer to its action potential threshold than would an action potential in neuron A." ], "a": 3, "e": "The IPSP caused by neuron B would summate with (subtract from) the amplitude of the EPSP caused by neuron A’s firing.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Which correctly associates a neurotransmitter with one of its characteristics?", "options": [ "Dopamine is a catecholamine synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine.", "Glutamate is released by most inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord.", "Serotonin is an endogenous opioid associated with “runner’s high.”", "GABA is the neurotransmitter that mediates long-term potentiation.", "Neuropeptides are synthesized in the axon terminals of the neurons that release them." ], "a": 0, "e": "Dopamine, like norepinephrine and epinephrine, is a catecholamine neurotransmitter manufactured by enzymatic modification of the amino acid tyrosine.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q9" } ], "cns": [ { "q": "1–4: Match the state of consciousness (a–d) with the correct electroencephalogram pattern (use each answer once). State of consciousness: a. relaxed, awake, eyes closed; b. stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep; c. rapid eye movement (REM) sleep; d. epileptic seizure. Electroencephalogram pattern 1: Very large-amplitude, recurrent waves, associated with sharp spikes", "options": [ "relaxed, awake, eyes closed", "stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep", "rapid eye movement (REM) sleep", "epileptic seizure" ], "a": 3, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Broca’s area.", "options": [ "is in the parietal association cortex and is responsible for language comprehension.", "is in the right frontal lobe and is responsible for memory formation.", "is in the left frontal lobe and is responsible for articulation of speech.", "is in the occipital lobe and is responsible for interpreting body language.", "is part of the limbic system and is responsible for the perception of fear." ], "a": 2, "e": "is in the left frontal lobe and is responsible for articulation of speech. Broca’s area is located near the region of the left frontal lobe motor cortex that controls the face; when it is damaged, individuals have “expressive aphasia.” This means that they comprehend language but are unable to articulate their own thoughts into words.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "1–4: Match the state of consciousness (a–d) with the correct electroencephalogram pattern (use each answer once). State of consciousness: a. relaxed, awake, eyes closed; b. stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep; c. rapid eye movement (REM) sleep; d. epileptic seizure. Electroencephalogram pattern 2: Small-amplitude, high-frequency waves, similar to the attentive awake state", "options": [ "relaxed, awake, eyes closed", "stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep", "rapid eye movement (REM) sleep", "epileptic seizure" ], "a": 2, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "1–4: Match the state of consciousness (a–d) with the correct electroencephalogram pattern (use each answer once). State of consciousness: a. relaxed, awake, eyes closed; b. stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep; c. rapid eye movement (REM) sleep; d. epileptic seizure. Electroencephalogram pattern 3: Irregular, slow-frequency, large-amplitude, “alpha” rhythm", "options": [ "relaxed, awake, eyes closed", "stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep", "rapid eye movement (REM) sleep", "epileptic seizure" ], "a": 0, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "1–4: Match the state of consciousness (a–d) with the correct electroencephalogram pattern (use each answer once). State of consciousness: a. relaxed, awake, eyes closed; b. stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep; c. rapid eye movement (REM) sleep; d. epileptic seizure. Electroencephalogram pattern 4: Regular, very slow-frequency, very large-amplitude “delta” rhythm", "options": [ "relaxed, awake, eyes closed", "stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep", "rapid eye movement (REM) sleep", "epileptic seizure" ], "a": 1, "e": "Delta rhythm — regular, very-slow-frequency, very-large-amplitude waves — is the hallmark of deep stage N3 non–rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which pattern of neurotransmitter activity is most consistent with the awake state?", "options": [ "high histamine, orexins, and GABA; low norepinephrine", "high norepinephrine, histamine, and serotonin; low orexins", "high histamine and serotonin; low GABA and orexins", "high histamine, GABA, and orexins; low serotonin", "high orexins, histamine, and norepinephrine; low GABA" ], "a": 4, "e": "high orexins, histamine, and norepinephrine; low GABA. See Figures 8.6 and 8.7.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Which best describes “habituation”?", "options": [ "seeking out and focusing on momentarily important stimuli", "decreased behavioral response to a persistent irrelevant stimulus", "halting current activity and orienting toward a novel stimulus", "evaluation of the importance of sensory stimuli that occur prior to focusing attention", "strengthening of synapses that are repeatedly stimulated during learning" ], "a": 1, "e": "decreased behavioral response to a persistent irrelevant stimulus. If by experience you discover that a persistent stimulus like the noise from a fan does not have relevance, there is a reduction in conscious attention directed toward that stimulus. This is an example of “habituation.”", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "The mesolimbic dopamine pathway is most closely associated with", "options": [ "shifting between states of consciousness.", "emotional behavior.", "motivation and reward behaviors.", "perception of fear.", "primary visual perception." ], "a": 2, "e": "motivation and reward behaviors. The mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the perception of reward that is associated with adaptive behaviors, including goal-directed behaviors related to preserving homeostasis, like eating and drinking.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Antidepressant medications most commonly target what neurotransmitter?", "options": [ "acetylcholine", "dopamine", "histamine", "serotonin", "glutamate" ], "a": 3, "e": "serotonin. Serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the most widely used antidepressant drugs, although other types of antidepressants additionally enhance signaling by norepinephrine.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Which is a true statement about memory?", "options": [ "Consolidation converts short-term memories into long-term memories.", "Short-term memory stores information for years, perhaps indefinitely.", "In retrograde amnesia, the ability to form new memories is lost.", "The cerebellum is an important site of storage for declarative memory.", "Destruction of the hippocampus erases all previously stored memories." ], "a": 0, "e": "Consolidation converts short-term memories into long-term memories. Short-term memories are transferred into new long-term memories in the process of consolidation, which requires a functional hippocampus. When the hippocampus is destroyed, previously formed long-term memories remain intact, but the ability to form new memories is lost.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8 · Recall Q9" } ], "ans": [ { "q": "Which of these synapses does not have acetylcholine as its primary neurotransmitter?", "options": [ "synapse of a postganglionic parasympathetic neuron onto a heart cell", "synapse of a postganglionic sympathetic neuron onto a smooth muscle cell", "synapse of a preganglionic sympathetic neuron onto a postganglionic neuron", "synapse of a somatic efferent neuron onto a skeletal muscle cell", "synapse of a preganglionic sympathetic neuron onto adrenal medullary cells" ], "a": 1, "e": "Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by postganglionic neurons onto smooth muscle cells.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6 · Recall Q10" } ], "ss": [ { "q": "Choose the true statement:", "options": [ "The modality of energy a given sensory receptor responds to in normal functioning is known as the “adequate stimulus” for that receptor.", "Receptor potentials are “all-or-none”—that is, they have the same magnitude regardless of the strength of the stimulus.", "When the frequency of action potentials along sensory neurons is constant as long as a stimulus continues, it is called “adaptation.”", "When sensory units have large receptive fields, the acuity of perception is greater.", "The “modality” refers to the intensity of a given stimulus." ], "a": 0, "e": "For example, photons of light are the adequate stimulus for photoreceptors of the eye, and sound is the adequate stimulus for hair cells of the ear.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which category of taste receptor cells does MSG (monosodium glutamate) most strongly stimulate?", "options": [ "salty", "bitter", "sweet", "umami", "sour" ], "a": 3, "e": "Umami is derived from the Japanese word meaning “delicious” or “savory”; the stimulation of these taste receptors by glutamate produces the perception of a rich, meaty flavor.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Using a single intracellular recording electrode, in what part of a sensory neuron could you simultaneously record both receptor potentials and action potentials?", "options": [ "in the cell body", "at the node of Ranvier nearest the peripheral end", "at the axon hillock where the axon meets the cell body", "at the central axon terminals within the CNS", "There is no single point where both can be measured." ], "a": 1, "e": "Receptor potentials generate only local currents in the receptor membrane that transduces the stimulus, but when they reach the first node of Ranvier, they depolarize the membrane to threshold, and there the voltage-gated Na+ channels first initiate action potentials. Beyond that point, the receptor potential decreases with distance, whereas action potentials propagate all the way to the central axon terminals.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "Which best describes “lateral inhibition” in sensory processing?", "options": [ "Presynaptic axo–axonal synapses reduce neurotransmitter release at excitatory synapses.", "When a stimulus is maintained for a long time, action potentials from sensory receptors decrease in frequency with time.", "Descending inputs from the brainstem inhibit afferent pain pathways in the spinal cord.", "Inhibitory interneurons decrease action potentials from receptors at the periphery of a stimulated region.", "Receptor potentials increase in magnitude with the strength of a stimulus." ], "a": 3, "e": "Lateral inhibition increases the contrast between the region at the center of a stimulus and regions at the edges of the stimulus, which increases the acuity of stimulus localization.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "What region of the brain contains the primary visual cortex?", "options": [ "occipital lobe", "frontal lobe", "temporal lobe", "somatosensory cortex", "parietal lobe association area" ], "a": 0, "e": "The occipital lobe of the cortex is the initial site of visual processing. (Review Figure 7.13.)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which type of receptor does not encode a somatic sensation?", "options": [ "muscle-spindle stretch receptor", "nociceptor", "Pacinian corpuscle", "thermoreceptor", "cochlear hair cell" ], "a": 4, "e": "Somatic sensations include those from the skin, muscles, bones, tendons, and joints, but not encoding of sound by cochlear hair cells.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Which best describes the vision of a person with uncorrected nearsightedness?", "options": [ "The eyeball is too long; far objects focus on the retina when the ciliary muscle contracts.", "The eyeball is too long; near objects focus on the retina when the ciliary muscle is relaxed.", "The eyeball is too long; near objects cannot be focused on the retina.", "The eyeball is too short; far objects cannot be focused on the retina.", "The eyeball is too short; near objects focus on the retina when the ciliary muscle is relaxed." ], "a": 1, "e": "A person with uncorrected nearsightedness (myopia) has an eyeball that is too long. When the ciliary muscles are relaxed and the lens is as flat as possible, parallel light rays from distant objects focus in front of the retina, whereas diverging rays from near objects are able to focus on the retina. (Recall that with normal vision, it takes ciliary muscle contraction and a rounded lens to focus on near objects.)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "If a patient suffers a stroke that destroys the optic tract on the right side of the brain, which of the following visual defects will result?", "options": [ "Complete blindness will result.", "There will be no vision in the left eye, but vision will be normal in the right eye.", "The patient will not perceive images of objects striking the left half of the retina in the left eye.", "The patient will not perceive images of objects striking the right half of the retina in the right eye.", "Neither eye will perceive objects in the right side of the patient’s field of view." ], "a": 3, "e": "When the right optic tract is destroyed, perception of images formed on the right half of the retina in both eyes is lost, so nothing is visible at the left side of a person’s field of view. (Review Figure 7.31.)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Which correctly describes a step in auditory signal transduction?", "options": [ "Displacement of the basilar membrane with respect to the tectorial membrane stimulates stereocilia on the hair cells.", "Pressure waves on the oval window cause vibrations of the malleus, which are transferred via the stapes to the round window.", "Movement of the stapes causes oscillations in the tympanic membrane, which is in contact with the endolymph.", "Oscillations of the stapes against the oval window set up pressure waves in the semicircular canals.", "The malleus, incus, and stapes are found in the inner ear, within the cochlea." ], "a": 0, "e": "Pressure waves traveling down the cochlea make the cochlear duct vibrate, moving the basilar membrane against the stationary tectorial membrane and bending the hair cells that bridge the gap between the two.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "A standing subject looking over her left shoulder suddenly rotates her head to look over her right shoulder. How does the vestibular system detect this motion?", "options": [ "The utricle goes from a vertical to a horizontal position, and otoliths stimulate stereocilia.", "Stretch receptors in neck muscles send action potentials to the vestibular apparatus, which relays them to the brain.", "Fluid within the semicircular canals remains stationary, bending the cupula and stereocilia as the head rotates.", "The movement causes endolymph in the cochlea to rotate from right to left, stimulating inner hair cells.", "Counterrotation of the aqueous humor activates a nystagmus response." ], "a": 2, "e": "With the sudden head rotation from left to right, inertia of the endolymph causes it to rotate from right to left with respect to the semicircular canal that lies in the horizontal plane. This fluid flow bends the cupula and embedded hair cells within the ampulla, which influences the firing of action potentials along the vestibular nerve.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7 · Recall Q9" } ], "cardio": [ { "q": "Which of the following pressures is closest to the mean arterial blood pressure in a person whose systolic blood pressure is 135 mmHg and pulse pressure is 50 mmHg?", "options": [ "110 mmHg", "78 mmHg", "102 mmHg", "152 mmHg", "85 mmHg" ], "a": 2, "e": "102 mmHg. The diastolic pressure in this example is 85; adding 1/3 of the pulse pressure gives a MAP of 101.7 mmHg.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Which of the following would help restore homeostasis in the first few moments after a person's mean arterial pressure became elevated?", "options": [ "a decrease in baroreceptor action potential frequency", "a decrease in action potential frequency along parasympathetic neurons to the heart", "an increase in action potential frequency along sympathetic neurons to the heart", "a decrease in action potential frequency along sympathetic neurons to arterioles", "an increase in total peripheral resistance" ], "a": 3, "e": "a decrease in action potential frequency along sympathetic neurons to arterioles. Reduced firing to arterioles would reduce total peripheral resistance and thereby reduce mean arterial pressure toward normal.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q11" }, { "q": "Which is false about L-type Ca2+ channels in cardiac ventricular muscle cells?", "options": [ "They are open during the plateau of the action potential.", "They allow Ca2+ entry that triggers sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ release.", "They are found in the T-tubule membrane.", "They open in response to depolarization of the membrane.", "They contribute to the pacemaker potential." ], "a": 4, "e": "They contribute to the pacemaker potential. Ventricular muscle cells do not have a pacemaker potential, and the L-type Ca2+ channel is not open during this phase of the action potential, even in autorhythmic cells.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q12" }, { "q": "Which correctly pairs an ECG phase with the cardiac event responsible?", "options": [ "P wave: depolarization of the ventricles", "P wave: depolarization of the AV node", "QRS wave: depolarization of the ventricles", "QRS wave: repolarization of the ventricles", "T wave: repolarization of the atria" ], "a": 2, "e": "QRS wave: depolarization of the ventricles.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q13" }, { "q": "When a person engages in strenuous, prolonged exercise,", "options": [ "blood flow to the kidneys is reduced.", "cardiac output is reduced.", "total peripheral resistance increases.", "systolic arterial blood pressure is reduced.", "blood flow to the brain is reduced." ], "a": 0, "e": "blood flow to the kidneys is reduced. Increased sympathetic nerve firing and norepinephrine release during exercise constrict vascular beds in the kidneys, GI tract, and other tissues to compensate for the large dilation of muscle vascular beds.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q14" }, { "q": "Which of the following contains blood with the lowest oxygen content?", "options": [ "aorta", "left atrium", "right ventricle", "pulmonary veins", "systemic arterioles" ], "a": 2, "e": "right ventricle. Blood in the right ventricle is relatively deoxygenated after returning from the tissues.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "If other factors are equal, which of the following vessels would have the lowest resistance?", "options": [ "length = 1 cm, radius = 1 cm", "length = 4 cm, radius = 1 cm", "length = 8 cm, radius = 1 cm", "length = 1 cm, radius = 2 cm", "length = 0.5 cm, radius = 2 cm" ], "a": 4, "e": "length = 0.5 cm, radius = 2 cm. Resistance decreases as the fourth power of an increase in radius, and in direct proportion to a decrease in vessel length.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which of the following correctly ranks pressures during isovolumetric contraction of a normal cardiac cycle?", "options": [ "left ventricular > aortic > left atrial", "aortic > left atrial > left ventricular", "left atrial > aortic > left ventricular", "aortic > left ventricular > left atrial", "left ventricular > left atrial > aortic" ], "a": 3, "e": "aortic > left ventricular > left atrial. See Figure 12.22.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Considered as a whole, the body's capillaries have", "options": [ "smaller cross-sectional area than the arteries.", "less total blood flow than in the veins.", "greater total resistance than the arterioles.", "slower blood velocity than in the arteries.", "greater total blood flow than in the arteries." ], "a": 3, "e": "slower blood velocity than in the arteries. The large total cross-sectional area of capillaries results in very slow blood velocity.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which of the following would not result in tissue edema?", "options": [ "an increase in the concentration of plasma proteins", "an increase in the pore size of systemic capillaries", "an increase in venous pressure", "blockage of lymph vessels", "a decrease in the protein concentration of the plasma" ], "a": 0, "e": "an increase in the concentration of plasma proteins. Increasing colloid osmotic pressure would decrease filtration of fluid from capillaries into the tissues.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Which statement comparing the systemic and pulmonary circuits is true?", "options": [ "The blood flow is greater through the systemic.", "The blood flow is greater through the pulmonary.", "The absolute pressure is higher in the pulmonary.", "The blood flow is the same in both.", "The pressure gradient is the same in both." ], "a": 3, "e": "The blood flow is the same in both. Pressures are higher in the systemic circuit, but because the cardiovascular system is a closed loop, the flow must be the same in both.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "What is mainly responsible for the delay between the atrial and ventricular contractions?", "options": [ "the shallow slope of AV node pacemaker potentials", "slow action potential conduction velocity of AV node cells", "slow action potential conduction velocity along atrial muscle cell membranes", "slow action potential conduction in the Purkinje network of the ventricles", "greater parasympathetic nerve firing to the ventricles than to the atria" ], "a": 1, "e": "slow action potential conduction velocity of AV node cells. The AV node is the only conduction point between atria and ventricles, and the slow propagation through it delays the beginning of ventricular contraction.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12 · Recall Q9" } ], "gi": [ { "q": "Match the gastrointestinal hormone (a–d) with its description (1–4). It is stimulated by the presence of acid in the small intestine and stimulates HCO3− release from the pancreas and bile ducts.", "options": [ "gastrin", "CCK", "secretin", "GIP" ], "a": 2, "e": "When the stomach contents, which are very acidic, move into the small intestine, it stimulates the release of secretin, which circulates to the pancreas and stimulates the release of HCO3− into the small intestine. This neutralizes the acid and protects the small intestine.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which of the following is the primary absorptive process in the large intestine?", "options": [ "active transport of Na+ from the lumen to the blood", "absorption of water", "active transport of K+ from the lumen to the blood", "active absorption of HCO3− into the blood", "active secretion of Cl− from the blood" ], "a": 0, "e": "The active transport of Na+ in the large intestine is the driving force for the osmotic absorption of water.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Match the gastrointestinal hormone (a–d) with its description (1–4). It is stimulated by glucose and fat in the small intestine and increases insulin and amplifies the insulin responses to glucose.", "options": [ "gastrin", "CCK", "secretin", "GIP" ], "a": 3, "e": "GIP release is a feedforward mechanism to signal the islet cells in the pancreas that the products of food digestion are on their way to the blood. This results in an augmented insulin response to a meal.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "Match the gastrointestinal hormone (a–d) with its description (1–4). It is inhibited by acid in the stomach and stimulates acid secretion from the stomach.", "options": [ "gastrin", "CCK", "secretin", "GIP" ], "a": 0, "e": "Gastrin is a major controller of acid secretion by the stomach. When the stomach becomes very acidic, gastrin release is inhibited, preventing continued acid production.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Match the gastrointestinal hormone (a–d) with its description (1–4). It is stimulated by amino acids and fatty acids in the small intestine and stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion.", "options": [ "gastrin", "CCK", "secretin", "GIP" ], "a": 1, "e": "Cholecystokinin is the primary signal from the small intestine to the pancreas to increase digestive enzyme release into the small intestine.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which of the following is true about pepsin?", "options": [ "Most pepsin is released directly from chief cells.", "Pepsin is most active at high pH.", "Pepsin is essential for protein digestion.", "Pepsin accelerates protein digestion.", "Pepsin accelerates fat digestion." ], "a": 3, "e": "The enzyme pepsin is produced from pepsinogen in the presence of acid, and accelerates protein digestion.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Micelles increase the absorption of fat by", "options": [ "binding the lipase enzyme and holding it on the surface of the lipid emulsion droplet.", "keeping the insoluble products of fat digestion in small aggregates.", "promoting direct absorption across the intestinal epithelium.", "metabolizing triglyceride to monoglyceride.", "facilitating absorption into the lacteals." ], "a": 1, "e": "Because fat is insoluble in an aqueous environment, micelles keep fat droplets from reaggregating and allow gradual absorption of fatty acids and other small lipids.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which of the following inhibit/inhibits gastric HCl secretion during a meal?", "options": [ "stimulation of the parasympathetic nerves to the enteric nervous system", "the sight and smell of food", "distension of the duodenum", "presence of peptides in the stomach", "distension of the stomach" ], "a": 2, "e": "Distention of the duodenum signals the stomach that the meal has moved on and continued acid secretion in the stomach is not necessary until the next meal.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Which component/components of bile is/are not primarily secreted by hepatocytes?", "options": [ "HCO3−", "bile salts", "cholesterol", "phospholipids", "bilirubin" ], "a": 0, "e": "HCO3− in the bile is secreted by the epithelial cells lining the bile ducts.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Which of the following is true about segmentation in the small intestine?", "options": [ "It is a type of peristalsis.", "It moves chyme only from the duodenum to the ileum.", "Its frequency is the same in each intestinal segment.", "It is unaffected by cephalic phase stimuli.", "It produces a slow migration of chyme to the large intestine." ], "a": 4, "e": "Although the primary movement of chyme in segmentation is back and forth, the overall, net movement of chyme is from the small intestine to the large intestine.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15 · Recall Q9" } ], "resp": [ { "q": "If Patm = 0 mmHg and Palv = −2 mmHg, then", "options": [ "transpulmonary pressure (Ptp) is 2 mmHg.", "it is at the end of the normal inspiration and there is no airflow.", "it is at the end of the normal expiration and there is no airflow.", "transpulmonary pressure (Ptp) is −2 mmHg.", "air is flowing into the lung." ], "a": 4, "e": "air is flowing into the lung. If alveolar pressure (Palv) is negative with respect to atmospheric pressure (Patm), the driving force for airflow is inward (from the atmosphere into the lung).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "After the expiration of a normal tidal volume, a subject breathes in as much air as possible. The volume of air inspired is the", "options": [ "inspiratory reserve volume.", "vital capacity.", "inspiratory capacity.", "total lung capacity.", "functional residual capacity." ], "a": 2, "e": "inspiratory capacity. Remember that a lung capacity is the sum of at least two volumes. Inspiratory capacity is the sum of tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Transpulmonary pressure (Ptp) increases by 3 mmHg during a normal inspiration. In subject A, 500 mL of air is inspired. In subject B, 250 mL of air is inspired for the same change in Ptp. Which is true?", "options": [ "The compliance of the lung of subject B is less than that of subject A.", "The airway resistance of subject A is greater than that of subject B.", "The surface tension in the lung of subject B is less than that in subject A.", "The lung of subject A is deficient in surfactant.", "The compliance cannot be estimated from the data provided." ], "a": 0, "e": "The compliance of the lung of subject B is less than that of subject A. For the same change in transpulmonary pressure, a less compliant (that is, stiffer) lung will have a smaller change in lung volume.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "If alveolar ventilation is 4200 mL/min, respiratory frequency is 12 breaths per minute, and tidal volume is 500 mL, what is the anatomical-dead-space ventilation?", "options": [ "1800 mL/min", "6000 mL/min", "350 mL/min", "1200 mL/min", "It cannot be determined from the data provided." ], "a": 0, "e": "1800 mL/min. Total minute ventilation is the sum of dead space plus alveolar ventilation. Minute ventilation is respiratory frequency (12 breaths per minute) multiplied by tidal volume (500 mL/breath) = 6000 mL/min. Subtract from that alveolar ventilation (4200 mL/min) and one gets 1800 mL/min.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Which of the following will increase alveolar PO2?", "options": [ "increase in metabolism and no change in alveolar ventilation", "breathing air with 15% oxygen at sea level", "increase in alveolar ventilation matched by an increase in metabolism", "increased alveolar ventilation with no change in metabolism", "carbon monoxide poisoning" ], "a": 3, "e": "increased alveolar ventilation with no change in metabolism. An increase in alveolar PO2 results from an increase in alveolar ventilation (supply of oxygen) relative to metabolic rate (consumption of oxygen).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Which of the following will cause the largest increase in systemic arterial oxygen saturation in the blood?", "options": [ "an increase in red cell concentration (hematocrit) of 20%", "breathing 100% O2 in a healthy subject at sea level", "an increase in arterial PO2 from 40 to 60 mmHg", "hyperventilation in a healthy subject at sea level", "breathing a gas with 5% CO2, 21% O2, and 74% N2 at sea level" ], "a": 2, "e": "A rise in arterial PO₂ from 40 to 60 mmHg spans the steep part of the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve, so it produces a large increase in hemoglobin saturation. Near-normal PO₂ (breathing 100% O₂ or hyperventilating) is already on the flat upper plateau, where extra PO₂ barely raises saturation; raising hematocrit increases O₂ content but not percent saturation.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "In arterial blood with a PO2 of 60 mmHg, which of the following situations will result in the lowest blood oxygen saturation?", "options": [ "decreased DPG with normal body temperature and blood pH", "increased body temperature, acidosis, and increased DPG", "decreased body temperature, alkalosis, and increased DPG", "normal body temperature with alkalosis", "increased body temperature with alkalosis" ], "a": 1, "e": "Increased temperature, acidosis (increased H⁺), and increased 2,3-DPG each shift the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right (downward), lowering hemoglobin saturation at a given PO₂. Option B combines all three rightward-shifting factors, giving the lowest saturation at PO₂ 60 mmHg.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which of the following is not true about asthma?", "options": [ "The basic defect is chronic airway inflammation.", "It is always caused by an allergy.", "The airway smooth muscle is hyperresponsive.", "It can be treated with inhaled steroid therapy.", "It can be treated with bronchodilator therapy." ], "a": 1, "e": "It is always caused by an allergy. There are forms of asthma that are not primarily due to the presence of allergens. Examples are exercise-induced or cold-air-induced asthma.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Which of the following is true?", "options": [ "Peripheral chemoreceptors increase firing with low arterial PO2 but are not sensitive to an increase in arterial PCO2.", "The primary stimulus to the central chemoreceptors is low arterial PO2.", "Peripheral chemoreceptors increase firing during metabolic alkalosis.", "The increase in ventilation during exercise is due to a decrease in arterial PO2.", "Peripheral and central chemoreceptors both increase firing when arterial PCO2 increases." ], "a": 4, "e": "this is mediated both by afferents from the peripheral chemoreceptors and by an increase in central chemoreceptor activity.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Ventilation–perfusion inequalities lead to hypoxemia because", "options": [ "the relationship between PCO2 and the content of CO2 in blood is sigmoidal.", "a decrease in ventilation–perfusion matching in a lung region causes pulmonary arteriolar vasodilation in that region.", "increases in ventilation cannot fully restore O2 content in areas with low ventilation–perfusion matching.", "increases in ventilation cannot normalize PCO2.", "pulmonary blood vessels are not sensitive to changes in PO2." ], "a": 2, "e": "perfusion matching. Because of the shape of the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve, small increases in PO2 due to increases in ventilation cannot fully saturate hemoglobin. When the desaturated blood mixes with saturated blood, the average is still hypoxemic.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13 · Recall Q9" } ], "renal": [ { "q": "Which of the following will lead to an increase in glomerular fluid filtration in the kidneys?", "options": [ "an increase in the protein concentration in the plasma", "an increase in the fluid pressure in Bowman’s space", "an increase in the glomerular capillary blood pressure", "a decrease in the glomerular capillary blood pressure", "constriction of the afferent arteriole" ], "a": 2, "e": "The main driving force favoring fluid filtration from the glomerular capillary to Bowman’s space is glomerular capillary blood (hydrostatic) pressure (PGC).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Which of the following is consistent with untreated chronic renal failure?", "options": [ "proteinuria", "hypokalemia", "increased plasma 1,25–(OH)2D", "increased plasma erythropoietin", "increased plasma HCO3−" ], "a": 0, "e": "When the renal corpuscles become diseased, they greatly increase their permeability to protein. Furthermore, diseased proximal tubules cannot remove the filtered protein from the tubular lumen. This results in increased protein in the urine (proteinuria).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Which of the following is true about renal clearance?", "options": [ "It is the amount of a substance excreted per unit time.", "A substance with clearance > GFR undergoes only filtration.", "A substance with clearance > GFR undergoes filtration and secretion.", "It can be calculated knowing only the filtered load of a substance and the rate of urine production.", "Creatinine clearance approximates renal plasma flow." ], "a": 2, "e": "In order for a substance to appear in the urine at a faster rate than its filtration rate, it must also be actively secreted into the tubular fluid.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "Which of the following will not lead to a diuresis?", "options": [ "excessive sweating", "central diabetes insipidus", "nephrogenic diabetes insipidus", "excessive water intake", "uncontrolled diabetes mellitus" ], "a": 0, "e": "Excessive sweating will decrease blood volume. This will lead to compensatory mechanisms to preserve total-body water, including a decrease in urine production (antidiuresis).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Which of the following contributes directly to the generation of a hypertonic medullary interstitium in the kidney?", "options": [ "active Na+ transport in the descending limb of Henle’s loop", "active water reabsorption in the ascending limb of Henle’s loop", "active Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule", "water reabsorption in the cortical collecting duct", "secretion of urea into Henle’s loop" ], "a": 4, "e": "Urea is trapped in the medullary interstitium and is an osmotically active solute. The resultant increase in tonicity helps to maintain the gradient for medullary passive water reabsorption.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "An increase in renin is caused by", "options": [ "a decrease in sodium intake.", "a decrease in renal sympathetic nerve activity.", "an increase in blood pressure in the renal artery.", "an injection of aldosterone.", "essential hypertension." ], "a": 0, "e": "A decrease in sodium intake stimulates renin because of the decrease in Na+ delivery to the macula densa. This is detected and results in an increase in renin release from the juxtaglomerular cells.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "An increase in parathyroid hormone will", "options": [ "increase plasma 25(OH) D.", "decrease plasma 1,25–(OH)2D.", "decrease calcium ion excretion.", "increase phosphate ion reabsorption.", "increase calcium ion reabsorption in the proximal tubule." ], "a": 2, "e": "Parathyroid hormone stimulates Ca2+ reabsorption in the distal tubules of the nephron, thereby decreasing Ca2+ excretion. Because parathyroid hormone is increased in hypocalcemic states, the resulting decrease in Ca2+ excretion helps to restore blood Ca2+ to normal.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Which of the following is a component of the renal response to metabolic acidosis?", "options": [ "reabsorption of H+", "secretion of HCO3− into the tubular lumen", "secretion of ammonium into the tubular lumen", "secretion of glutamine into the interstitial fluid", "carbonic anhydrase-mediated production of HPO42−" ], "a": 2, "e": "Secretion of ammonium into the renal tubule is one way to rid the body of excess hydrogen ion (metabolic acidosis).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Which of the following is consistent with respiratory alkalosis?", "options": [ "an increase in alveolar ventilation during mild exercise", "hyperventilation", "an increase in plasma HCO3−", "an increase in arterial CO2", "urine pH < 5.0" ], "a": 1, "e": "Increases in ventilation greater than metabolic rate “blow off” CO2 and result in a decrease in arterial PCO2. Because of the buffering of bicarbonate ions, this increases arterial pH (respiratory alkalosis).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Which is true about the difference between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?", "options": [ "Most nephrons are juxtamedullary.", "The efferent arterioles of cortical nephrons give rise to most of the vasa recta.", "The afferent arterioles of the juxtamedullary nephrons give rise to most of the vasa recta.", "All cortical nephrons have a loop of Henle.", "Juxtamedullary nephrons generate a hyperosmotic medullary interstitium." ], "a": 4, "e": "Cortical nephrons either have short or absent loops of Henle. Only juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle, which plunge into the renal medulla and create a hyperosmotic interstitium via countercurrent multiplication and the trapping of urea.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14 · Recall Q9" } ], "endo": [ { "q": "Match the hormone with the function or feature (choices a–e). Hormone: vasopressin", "options": [ "tropic for the adrenal cortex", "controlled by an amine-derived hormone of the hypothalamus", "antidiuresis", "stimulation of testosterone production", "stimulation of uterine contractions during labor" ], "a": 2, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "Choose the correct statement.", "options": [ "During times of stress, cortisol acts as an anabolic hormone in muscle and adipose tissue.", "A deficiency of thyroid hormone would result in increased cellular concentrations of Na+/K+-ATPase pumps in target tissues.", "The posterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus by long portal vessels.", "Adrenal insufficiency often results in increased blood pressure and increased plasma glucose concentrations.", "A lack of iodine in the diet will not have a significant effect on the concentration of circulating thyroid hormone for at least several weeks." ], "a": 4, "e": "Recall that there is a large store of iodinated thyroglobulin in thyroid follicles and that the half-life of T4 is very long (approximately 6 days).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "A lower-than-normal concentration of plasma Ca2+ causes", "options": [ "a PTH-mediated increase in 25-OH D.", "a decrease in renal 1-hydroxylase activity.", "a decrease in the urinary excretion of Ca2+.", "a decrease in bone resorption.", "an increase in vitamin D release from the skin." ], "a": 2, "e": "Low plasma Ca2+ decreases the filtered load of Ca2+. It also stimulates parathyroid hormone, which increases Ca2+ reabsorption from the distal tubule. This helps to prevent the further loss of Ca2+ in the urine.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q11" }, { "q": "Which of the following is not consistent with primary hyperparathyroidism?", "options": [ "hypercalcemia", "increased plasma 1,25-(OH)2D", "increased urinary excretion of phosphate ions", "a decrease in Ca2+ resorption from bone", "an increase in Ca2+ reabsorption in the kidney" ], "a": 3, "e": "Parathyroid hormone is a potent stimulator of Ca2+ resorption from bone.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q12" }, { "q": "Match the hormone with the function or feature (choices a–e). Hormone: ACTH", "options": [ "tropic for the adrenal cortex", "controlled by an amine-derived hormone of the hypothalamus", "antidiuresis", "stimulation of testosterone production", "stimulation of uterine contractions during labor" ], "a": 0, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "Match the hormone with the function or feature (choices a–e). Hormone: oxytocin", "options": [ "tropic for the adrenal cortex", "controlled by an amine-derived hormone of the hypothalamus", "antidiuresis", "stimulation of testosterone production", "stimulation of uterine contractions during labor" ], "a": 4, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Match the hormone with the function or feature (choices a–e). Hormone: prolactin", "options": [ "tropic for the adrenal cortex", "controlled by an amine-derived hormone of the hypothalamus", "antidiuresis", "stimulation of testosterone production", "stimulation of uterine contractions during labor" ], "a": 1, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Match the hormone with the function or feature (choices a–e). Hormone: luteinizing hormone", "options": [ "tropic for the adrenal cortex", "controlled by an amine-derived hormone of the hypothalamus", "antidiuresis", "stimulation of testosterone production", "stimulation of uterine contractions during labor" ], "a": 3, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Which is not a symptom of Cushing’s disease?", "options": [ "high blood pressure", "bone loss", "suppressed immune function", "goiter", "hyperglycemia (increased blood glucose)" ], "a": 3, "e": "Goiter results from dysfunction of the thyroid gland.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "Tremors, nervousness, and increased heart rate can all be symptoms of", "options": [ "increased activation of the sympathetic nervous system.", "excessive secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla.", "hyperthyroidism.", "hypothyroidism.", "answers a, b, and c (all are correct)." ], "a": 4, "e": "Recall that thyroid hormone potentiates the effects of epinephrine and the sympathetic nervous system.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Which of the following could theoretically result in short stature?", "options": [ "pituitary tumor making excess thyroid-stimulating hormone", "mutations that result in inactive IGF-1 receptors", "delayed onset of puberty", "decreased hypothalamic concentrations of somatostatin", "normal plasma GH but decreased feedback of GH on GHRH" ], "a": 1, "e": "", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11 · Recall Q9" } ], "repro": [ { "q": "Development of normal female internal and external genitalia requires", "options": [ "anti-müllerian hormone.", "expression of the SRY gene.", "insensitivity to circulating testosterone.", "complete absence of testosterone.", "absence of a Y chromosome." ], "a": 4, "e": "Without the presence of the Y chromosome in the testes and the local production of SRY protein, the undifferentiated gonads are programmed to differentiate into ovaries. There is new evidence that genes expressed on the X chromosome are also involved in the development of the ovary.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q1" }, { "q": "During the third trimester of pregnancy, the placenta is not the primary source of which hormone in maternal blood?", "options": [ "estrogen", "prolactin", "progesterone", "inhibin", "hCG" ], "a": 1, "e": "Prolactin is produced by the maternal pituitary gland. It is homologous to but not the same peptide as human placental lactogen, which is produced by the placenta.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q10" }, { "q": "Which is not characteristic of a normal postpubertal male?", "options": [ "Inhibin from the Sertoli cells decreases FSH secretion.", "Testosterone has paracrine effects on the Sertoli cells.", "Testosterone stimulates GnRH from the hypothalamus.", "Testosterone inhibits LH secretion.", "GnRH from the hypothalamus is released in pulses." ], "a": 2, "e": "Only females exhibit gonadal steroid (estrogen) positive feedback on GnRH release.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q2" }, { "q": "Match the day of the menstrual cycle (a–e) with the event (3–7; use each answer once). Event: Progesterone from the corpus luteum peaks.", "options": [ "day 1", "day 7", "day 13", "day 23", "day 26" ], "a": 3, "e": "The luteal phase of the ovary, when progesterone production is maximal, occurs after ovulation but before the end of the menstrual cycle.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q3" }, { "q": "Match the day of the menstrual cycle (a–e) with the event (3–7; use each answer once). Event: Estrogen positive feedback is peaking.", "options": [ "day 1", "day 7", "day 13", "day 23", "day 26" ], "a": 2, "e": "Estrogen stimulates LH release (positive feedback) just before the LH surge and ovulation (usually on day 14).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q4" }, { "q": "Match the day of the menstrual cycle (a–e) with the event (3–7; use each answer once). Event: One follicle becomes dominant.", "options": [ "day 1", "day 7", "day 13", "day 23", "day 26" ], "a": 1, "e": "One follicle becomes dominant early in the menstrual cycle.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q5" }, { "q": "Match the day of the menstrual cycle (a–e) with the event (3–7; use each answer once). Event: Estrogen and progesterone are both decreasing.", "options": [ "day 1", "day 7", "day 13", "day 23", "day 26" ], "a": 4, "e": "The death of the corpus luteum (in the absence of pregnancy and hCG) results in a dramatic decrease in ovarian progesterone and estrogen production.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q6" }, { "q": "Match the day of the menstrual cycle (a–e) with the event (3–7; use each answer once). Event: Increase in FSH stimulates antral follicles to begin to secrete estrogen.", "options": [ "day 1", "day 7", "day 13", "day 23", "day 26" ], "a": 0, "e": "The loss of ovarian steroid production with the death of the corpus luteum releases the pituitary gland from negative feedback and allows FSH to increase. This stimulates the maturation of a small number of follicles for the next menstrual cycle.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q7" }, { "q": "The Leydig cell is primarily characterized by", "options": [ "aromatization of testosterone.", "secretion of inhibin.", "secretion of testosterone.", "expression of receptors only to FSH.", "transformation into the corpus luteum." ], "a": 2, "e": "The primary function of the Leydig cell is the production of testosterone in response to stimulation with LH.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q8" }, { "q": "Menopause is characterized primarily by", "options": [ "primary ovarian failure.", "loss of estrogen secretion from the ovary due to a decrease in LH.", "loss of estrogen secretion from the ovary due to a decrease in FSH.", "a decrease in FSH and LH due to increased inhibin.", "a decrease in FSH and LH due to a decrease in GnRH pulses." ], "a": 0, "e": "The primary event in menopause is the loss of ovarian function. The decrease in estrogen leads to an increase in pituitary gland gonadotropin release (loss of negative feedback inhibition).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17 · Recall Q9" } ] }; const TEXTBOOK_FLASHCARDS = { "cell": [ { "t": "Two types of cells", "d": "prokaryotic (bacteria) and eukaryotic (plant and animal cells)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Cell interior", "d": "nucleus and cytoplasm (the region outside the nucleus)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Fluid-mosaic model", "d": "concept of proteins freely moving about in the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Membrane junctions", "d": "integrins, desmosomes, tight junctions, and gap junctions", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Nucleus", "d": "transmits and expresses genetic information", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Ribosomes", "d": "composed of RNA and protein; sites of protein synthesis", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Endoplasmic reticulum", "d": "composed of rough (has attached ribosomes; participates in protein packaging) and smooth (tubular; site of lipid synthesis and calcium storage and release) ER", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 3" }, { "t": "Temperature", "d": "The more elevated the temperature, the greater the speed of molecular movement and the faster the net flux.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Mass of the molecule", "d": "Large molecules such as proteins have a greater mass and move more slowly than smaller molecules such as glucose and, consequently, have a slower net flux.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Surface area", "d": "The greater the surface area separating two regions, the greater the space available for diffusion and, therefore, the faster the net flux.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Simple diffusion", "d": "the movement of molecules from one location to another by random thermal motion", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Fick’s first law of diffusion", "d": "The magnitude of the net flux of a substance across a membrane is directly proportional to the concentration difference across the membrane, the surface area of the membrane, and the membrane permeability coefficient.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Nonpolar molecules", "d": "dissolve in lipid bilayer; readily diffuse through membranes", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Membrane potential", "d": "separation of electrical charge across a plasma membrane", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 4" }, { "t": "Signal transduction", "d": "a sequence of events inside a cell beginning with a receptor binding a chemical messenger and ending with a cell’s response to that messenger", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5" }, { "t": "Receptor activation", "d": "initial step leading to a cell’s response to a messenger; occurs due to a conformational change in the receptor triggered by its binding a messenger", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5" }, { "t": "Signal transduction pathways", "d": "the diverse sequences of events that link receptor activation to a cell’s ultimate response to a messenger", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5" }, { "t": "Lipid-soluble messengers", "d": "bind to nuclear receptors inside the target cell", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5" }, { "t": "Water-soluble messengers", "d": "Bind to four classes of plasma-membrane receptors: (1) receptors that are also ligand-gated ion channels, (2) receptors that are also enzymes, (3) receptors that activate an associated cytosolic Janus kinase, and (4) receptors that interact with an associated G protein.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5" }, { "t": "First messengers", "d": "the messengers that bind to cell receptors", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 5" } ], "blood": [ { "t": "Immune defenses", "d": "innate (nonspecific in that the identity of the target is not recognized) or adaptive (specific in that the target’s identity is recognized)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Phagocytes", "d": "engulf foreign matter and destroy it intracellularly (phagocytosis)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Cytokines", "d": "protein messengers from certain immune (and other) cells that regulate immune responses", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Innate immunity", "d": "body’s defenses against a wide range of pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, and parasites", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Inflammation", "d": "a key feature of innate immunity characterized by local vasodilation, increased vascular permeability to protein, phagocyte chemotaxis and diapedesis, destruction of the invader via phagocytosis or extracellular killing, and tissue repair", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Interferons", "d": "chemical mediators produced by virus-infected cells that stimulate the production of intracellular proteins that inhibit viral replication", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Toll-like receptors (TLRs)", "d": "evolutionarily ancient proteins which recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) that are shared features of many pathogens", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Adaptive immunity", "d": "specific immune responses to a particular invader; mediated by lymphocytes", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Lymphoid organs", "d": "immune organs categorized as primary (bone marrow and thymus) or secondary (lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, and lymphocyte collections in the linings of the body’s tracts)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Antibodies", "d": "composed of four polypeptide chains with variable regions that create specificity for a single antigen", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Bulk flow", "d": "movement of protein-free plasma or interstitial fluid across capillaries", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Formation of a platelet plug", "d": "Platelet adhesion to exposed collagen (aided by von Willebrand factor), activation with release of ADP and thromboxane A₂, and aggregation of platelets into a plug that seals small-vessel breaks (primary hemostasis).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Platelets", "d": "adhere to exposed collagen in a damaged blood vessel", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Blood coagulation (clotting)", "d": "follows formation of platelet plug", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Thrombin (enzyme)", "d": "catalyzes formation of fibrin mesh", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Liver", "d": "Produces bile salts necessary for intestinal vitamin K absorption; vitamin K is needed for the normal synthesis of several clotting factors.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Aspirin", "d": "inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase activity (decreases prostaglandin and thromboxane production)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "T-cell receptor", "d": "binds antigen only when the antigen is complexed to one of the body’s own plasma membrane MHC proteins", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Immune tolerance", "d": "result of clonal deletion and clonal inactivation of cells that recognize self proteins", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" }, { "t": "Acute phase response", "d": "systemic responses to infection involving organs and tissues distant from the site of an infection", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 18" } ], "nms": [ { "t": "Nervous system", "d": "made up of central nervous system (CNS; the brain and spinal cord) and peripheral nervous system (PNS; neurons outside of the CNS)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Neuron", "d": "the basic cellular unit of the nervous system", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Glia cells", "d": "nonneuronal cells that do not directly participate in signaling but play supporting roles for neurons", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Myelin", "d": "insulating sheath formed over certain neurons in CNS and PNS that speeds transmission of signals; made of membranes of Schwann cells (PNS) or oligodendrocytes (CNS) that are interrupted periodically at nodes of Ranvier", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Neurotransmitters", "d": "Chemical mediators released by neurons that act as signals between neurons or between neurons and other cells (e.g., muscle cells).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Afferent neurons", "d": "transmit information into the CNS from receptors at their peripheral endings", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Efferent neurons", "d": "transmit information out of the CNS to effector cells", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Interneurons", "d": "lie entirely within the CNS; form circuits with other interneurons or connect afferent and efferent neurons", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Synapse", "d": "specialized junction between a neuron and a target cell across which signals are sent by neurotransmitters", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Glial cell types", "d": "nonneuronal cells of the CNS and PNS, including astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Skeletal muscles", "d": "composed of cylindrical, multinucleated muscle fibers (cells) derived from myoblasts", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Sarcomeres", "d": "repeating, striated pattern of light and dark bands observed when viewing skeletal muscle fibers under a microscope", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Electrical activation of skeletal muscle fibers", "d": "transmitted via elaborations of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma) called transverse tubules (T-tubules).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Contraction", "d": "activation of force generation in a muscle fiber; relaxation refers to turning off the force-generating mechanisms and allowing a decrease in tension.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Alpha motor neurons", "d": "the neurons that innervate skeletal muscle fibers; one motor neuron innervates many muscle fibers, forming a motor unit.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Neuromuscular junction", "d": "formed from branches of a motor neuron axon that contact a muscle fiber at a region of the fiber called a motor end plate", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Excitation–contraction coupling", "d": "Sequence of events linking an action potential to contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber: cytosolic Ca²⁺ rises after electrical excitation; Ca²⁺ binds troponin, moving tropomyosin off the myosin-binding sites on actin; cross-bridges cycle to produce force; Ca²⁺ is then pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the fiber relaxes.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Sliding-filament mechanism", "d": "The thin filaments are propelled toward the center of a sarcomere by movements of the myosin cross-bridges that bind to actin, thereby shortening the fiber.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Twitch contraction", "d": "mechanical response of a muscle fiber to a single action potential", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" }, { "t": "Maximum isometric tetanic tension", "d": "produced at optimal length (L0) of a sarcomere", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 9" } ], "cns": [ { "t": "States of consciousness", "d": "levels of alertness (asleep, drowsy, awake, and alert)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Conscious experiences", "d": "those experiences one is aware of, such as thoughts and feelings", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Electroencephalogram (EEG)", "d": "recording of brain electrical activity that provides one means of defining the states of consciousness", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Waking state", "d": "characterized by alpha rhythms when relaxed and, during active attention, beta rhythms", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Sleep state", "d": "characterized by low-frequency theta and delta rhythms; decreased motor output; decreased ease of arousal", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep", "d": "progresses from stage N1 (theta rhythm) through high-frequency stage N2 sleep spindles, to stage N3 (delta rhythm) and then back again", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "REM (rapid eye movement) sleep", "d": "intermittent episodes of intense EEG activity even though a person is deeply asleep (thus, also known as paradoxical sleep); associated with dreaming", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Wakefulness", "d": "regulated by groups of neurons originating in the brainstem and hypothalamus that activate cortical arousal by releasing various transmitters and neuropeptides. A sleep center in the hypothalamus releases GABA and inhibits these activating centers.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Selective attention", "d": "avoiding the distraction of irrelevant stimuli while focusing on stimuli that are immediately important", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Primary motivated behaviors", "d": "behaviors that support homeostasis. Behavior not related to homeostasis is a result of secondary motivation.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Altered states of consciousness", "d": "often arise because of drug use or certain diseases", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Mood disorders", "d": "include depressive disorders and bipolar disorders", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Learning", "d": "the acquisition and storage of information as a consequence of experience", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Memory encoding", "d": "the cellular and molecular changes that lead to formation of memories", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Short-term memories", "d": "the retention of information for seconds or minutes after its input", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Long-term memories", "d": "memories that can be stored and recalled days or years later", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Wernicke’s area", "d": "region of left hemisphere involved in comprehension of language", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" }, { "t": "Broca’s area", "d": "Region of the frontal lobe required for the articulation of speech.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 8" } ], "ans": [ { "t": "Efferent division of the PNS", "d": "divided into somatic and autonomic divisions", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Sympathetic division", "d": "mediates fight-or-flight responses characterized by increased activity of organs that mediate increased physical activity", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" }, { "t": "Parasympathetic division", "d": "mediates rest-and-digest state (generally the opposite actions of the sympathetic division)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 6" } ], "ss": [ { "t": "Sensory system", "d": "part of the nervous system consisting of sensory receptors, neural pathways conducting information from receptors to the brain or spinal cord, and the parts of the brain that process the information", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Sensory processing", "d": "transformation of stimulus energy into graded potentials and then into action potentials in neurons", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Sensory receptors", "d": "translate information from external and internal environments into graded potentials", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Sensory transduction", "d": "involves—either directly or indirectly—the opening or closing of ion channels in the sensory receptor, causing a receptor potential", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Coding", "d": "conversion of stimulus energy into a signal that conveys the relevant sensory information to the CNS", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Sensory unit", "d": "a single afferent neuron with all its receptors", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Receptive field for a neuron", "d": "the area of the body that causes activity in an afferent neuron", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Stimulus intensity", "d": "coded by (1) the frequency of firing of individual sensory units and (2) by the number of sensory units activated (recruitment)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Sensory pathways", "d": "chains of three or more neurons connected by synapses", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Cortical association area", "d": "regions of the cerebral cortex where information from primary sensory cortical areas is relayed for further processing", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Somatic sensations", "d": "touch, pressure, posture and movement, temperature, and pain and itch", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Muscle-spindle stretch receptor", "d": "major receptor type responsible for the senses of posture and kinesthesia (the sense of movement at a joint)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Eye", "d": "Major structures include sclera, choroid, cornea, iris, pupil, lens, retina, ciliary muscles, and aqueous and vitreous humors.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Accommodation", "d": "change in lens shape to permit viewing near or distant images so that they are focused on the retina", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Photopigments", "d": "light-sensing molecules made up of a protein (opsin) and a chromophore (retinal); located in photoreceptors (rods and cones)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Color vision", "d": "related to the wavelength of light. The three cone photopigments vary in the strength of their response to light over differing ranges of wavelengths.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Sound energy", "d": "transmitted by pressure waves", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Vestibular apparatus", "d": "lies in the temporal bone in the inner ear of each side of the head; consists of three semicircular canals, a utricle, and a saccule", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Semicircular canals", "d": "detect angular acceleration during rotation of the head in any of three planes, which causes bending of the stereocilia on hair cells", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" }, { "t": "Taste buds", "d": "location in the tongue and elsewhere of the receptors for taste (gustation). Different types of taste receptors have different sensory transduction mechanisms.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 7" } ], "cardio": [ { "t": "Systemic circulation", "d": "left ventricle → peripheral organs/tissues → right atrium", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Pulmonary circulation", "d": "right ventricle → lungs → left atrium", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Microcirculation", "d": "blood vessels between arteries and veins (arterioles → capillaries → venules)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Blood flow between two points", "d": "analogous to electrical current in Ohm’s law describing electrical circuits", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Action potentials", "d": "occur in all cardiac cells", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Sinoatrial (SA) node", "d": "spontaneously generates action potentials that lead to depolarization of cardiac cells", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Electrocardiogram (ECG)", "d": "detection of the spread of cardiac cell depolarization and repolarization from the surface of the body", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Excitation–contraction coupling", "d": "links action potentials to muscle contraction (similar to skeletal muscle; see Figure 9.40)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Cardiac cycle", "d": "systole (ventricular contraction) and diastole (ventricular relaxation)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Echocardiography", "d": "assesses wall and valve function", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Cardiac angiography", "d": "assesses coronary artery patency and blood flow", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Cardiac output (CO)", "d": "volume of blood each ventricle pumps per unit time (e.g., L/min)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Stroke volume", "d": "volume of blood ejected per cardiac cycle", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Endothelium", "d": "smooth, single-celled layer of endothelial cells in contact with the flowing blood in all blood vessels and the heart chambers", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Pulse pressure", "d": "maximal arterial pressure (systolic pressure) minus minimal arterial pressure (diastolic pressure) during a cardiac cycle", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Mean arterial pressure (MAP)", "d": "calculated as diastolic pressure plus one-third of the pulse pressure", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Resistance", "d": "determined by local factors and neural and hormonal input; controls local blood flow", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Capillaries", "d": "Nutrients and waste products are exchanged between blood and tissues.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Major sites of diffusion", "d": "Substances diffuse in both directions between capillaries and interstitial fluid.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" }, { "t": "Osmosis", "d": "movement of water through semipermeable membrane (i.e., endothelial cell membrane) from a lower solute concentration to a higher solute concentration", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 12" } ], "gi": [ { "t": "Digestive system", "d": "the structures including the alimentary canal (GI tract) involved in breaking down macromolecules (digestion), absorbing nutrients (absorption), and elimination of wastes (feces)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Gastrointestinal reflexes", "d": "typically initiated by luminal stimuli such as distension, osmolarity, acidity, and products of digestion", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Stomach", "d": "composed of fundus, body, and antrum; food exits the stomach through the pyloric sphincter", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Receptive relaxation", "d": "expansion of the stomach mediated by parasympathetic nerves; allows the stomach to receive a large volume of ingested food and liquid", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Small intestine", "d": "longest region of the GI tract, with three regions: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Bile", "d": "Produced by the liver and stored/concentrated in the gallbladder, then released into the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi; major ingredients include bile salts, cholesterol, phospholipids, HCO₃⁻, and bile pigments (e.g., bilirubin).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Water absorption", "d": "occurs by osmosis following the active absorption of solutes, primarily Na+ and Cl−", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Large intestine", "d": "includes the cecum and appendix, as well as the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, and the rectum, which contracts to expel feces via the anus during defecation", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Ulcers", "d": "sites of erosion of the mucosa and possibly underlying layers of the GI wall, most commonly in the lower esophagus, stomach, and duodenum", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Vomiting", "d": "adaptive reflex coordinated by the vomiting (emetic) center in the medulla oblongata", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Gallstones", "d": "formed in gallbladder by precipitation of cholesterol or, less often, bile pigments", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Lactase activity", "d": "undergoes a genetically determined decrease during childhood in most individuals", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Constipation", "d": "infrequent defecation due primarily to decreased colonic motility", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" }, { "t": "Diarrhea", "d": "Frequent, watery stools often caused by decreased fluid absorption, increased fluid secretion, or both.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 15" } ], "resp": [ { "t": "Respiratory system", "d": "consists of the lungs, airways (leading to lungs), and chest structures (that induce movement of air into and out of the lungs and airways)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Lungs", "d": "Elastic structures surrounded by pleura; lung volume depends on the pressure difference across the lungs (transpulmonary pressure) and how compliant (stretchable) the lungs are.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Bulk flow (F) of air", "d": "Movement of air between the atmosphere and alveoli, described by F = (Palv − Patm)/R, where Palv = alveolar pressure, Patm = atmospheric pressure, and R = airway resistance.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Inspiration", "d": "air moving from atmosphere into lungs", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Expiration", "d": "air moving from lungs to atmosphere", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Lung volumes and capacities", "d": "“Capacities” are the sum of two or more volumes.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Pulmonary function tests", "d": "evaluate airway compliance and resistance", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Law of Laplace", "d": "P = 2T/r (P is alveolar pressure, T is surface tension, and r is radius of alveolus)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Minute ventilation", "d": "product of tidal volume and respiratory rate", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Dead space", "d": "Volume of inspired air that does not take part in gas exchange; composed of anatomical dead space (air in the conducting airways) plus alveolar dead space (air reaching alveoli that are unperfused or poorly perfused).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Henry’s law", "d": "The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to partial pressure in a gas with which the liquid is in equilibrium.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Pulmonary capillaries", "d": "site of gas exchange between blood and alveolar gas", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Ventilation–perfusion inequalities", "d": "unbalanced distribution of blood flow and ventilation", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Partial pressures of gases", "d": "Dalton’s law states that pressures of individual gases are independent of each other in a mixture of different gases.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Systemic arterial blood", "d": "normally contains ~ 200 mL oxygen per liter", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Hemoglobin oxygen saturation", "d": "determined by blood PO2 and the shape of the oxygen–hemoglobin dissociation curve (sigmoid curve demonstrating cooperative binding)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Carbon dioxide", "d": "net diffusion from the tissues into the blood, ~ 10% remains dissolved in plasma and erythrocytes", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Venous blood", "d": "returns to the right side of the heart and is pumped into the pulmonary circulation", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Respiratory acidosis", "d": "due to hypoventilation; results in arterial carbon dioxide retention leading to increased H+", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" }, { "t": "Respiratory alkalosis", "d": "due to hyperventilation; results in a decrease in arterial carbon dioxide leading to decreased H+", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 13" } ], "renal": [ { "t": "Kidneys", "d": "(1) regulate the water and ionic composition of the body, (2) excrete waste products, (3) excrete foreign chemicals, (4) produce glucose during prolonged fasting, and (5) release factors and hormones into the blood (renin, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, and erythropoietin)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Two kidneys", "d": "Retroperitoneal organs that filter blood to form urine. Urine path: kidney → renal pelvis → ureters → bladder → urethra. Blood supply: aorta → renal arteries → renal circulation → renal veins.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Nephron", "d": "functional unit of the kidneys (approximately 1 million per kidney); consists of a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Filtration barrier in the renal corpuscle", "d": "consists of three layers—capillary endothelium, basement membrane, Bowman’s capsule epithelium (podocytes); mesangial cells represent third cell type (discussed later)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Three basic renal processes", "d": "Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion (amount excreted = amount filtered + amount secreted − amount reabsorbed).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Filtrate movement through the tubules", "d": "Certain substances are reabsorbed either by diffusion or by mediated transport.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Clearance", "d": "volume of the plasma completely cleared of a substance per unit time (e.g., units are in mL/min)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Voluntary control", "d": "mediated by motor nerves supplying the external urethral sphincter", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Incontinence", "d": "involuntary release of urine that occurs most commonly in elderly people (particularly women)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Na+ and Cl− balance", "d": "gains by ingestion; losses via the skin (in sweat), the gastrointestinal tract, and urine", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Homeostasis for both water and Na+", "d": "Renal excretion is the major control point for maintaining stable balance.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Renal Na+ handling", "d": "filtration (glomerulus) and reabsorption (primary active process dependent upon Na+/K+-ATPase pumps in the basolateral membranes of the tubular epithelium); Na+ not secreted", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Vasopressin (ADH) — site of action", "d": "acts on the collecting-duct system to increase water permeability (AQP2 insertion); exerts no major direct effect on tubular segments before the collecting ducts", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Osmotic diuresis", "d": "water loss in the urine due to excessive solute excretion (e.g., glucosuria in diabetes mellitus)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Na+ excretion", "d": "difference between the amount of Na+ filtered and reabsorbed", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Filtered load of Na+", "d": "determined by GFR (and plasma concentration of Na+)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Tubular Na+ reabsorption", "d": "adrenocortical hormone aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Renin–angiotensin system (RAS)", "d": "major controller of aldosterone secretion", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Atrial natriuretic peptide", "d": "secreted by cells in the atria in response to cardiac atrial distension", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" }, { "t": "Pressure natriuresis", "d": "Arterial pressure acts locally (directly) on the renal tubules; increased pressure causes decreased Na+ reabsorption (increases excretion).", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 14" } ], "endo": [ { "t": "Endocrine glands", "d": "Ductless organs or groups of cells that secrete hormones directly into the blood or other body fluids.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Steroid hormones", "d": "produced from cholesterol by the adrenal cortex and the gonads and from steroid precursors by the placenta", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Steroid and thyroid hormones", "d": "poorly soluble; mostly bound to plasma proteins", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Hormone receptors", "d": "proteins (on the plasma membrane or intracellular) that bind a specific hormone and trigger the target cell's response; receptor number and affinity can be up- or down-regulated, altering target-cell responsiveness", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Hormone secretion", "d": "Controlled by different inputs: the plasma concentration of an ion or nutrient that the hormone regulates, neural input to the endocrine cells, and one or more other hormones.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Classes (categories) of endocrine disorders", "d": "hyposecretion, hypersecretion, and target-cell hyporesponsiveness or hyperresponsiveness", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Pituitary gland", "d": "anterior pituitary gland and posterior pituitary", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Goiter", "d": "enlarged thyroid from any cause", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Hypothyroidism", "d": "decreased thyroid function", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Hyperthyroidism", "d": "increased thyroid function", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Cortisol", "d": "steroid hormone synthesized in the adrenal cortex", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Stress", "d": "disruption of homeostasis; increased cortisol is a critical response", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Cushing’s syndrome", "d": "chronically increased endogenous cortisol or taking exogenous glucocorticoid", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Adrenal insufficiency", "d": "inadequate production of cortisol", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Vasopressin", "d": "increased renal water retention (antidiuresis)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Aldosterone, growth hormone, and glucagon", "d": "regulate various aspects of ion balance and metabolism", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Epiphyseal growth plates", "d": "convert cartilage to bone", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Growth hormone", "d": "major stimulus of postnatal growth", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Thyroid hormone", "d": "stimulates growth hormone synthesis and has many growth-promoting effects", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" }, { "t": "Insulin (as a growth-affecting hormone)", "d": "in addition to its central role in glucose and fuel homeostasis, insulin stimulates growth mainly during fetal life", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 11" } ], "repro": [ { "t": "Gametes", "d": "spermatozoa (male sperm) and ova (female)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Mitosis", "d": "first stage of gametogenesis in which primordial germ cells develop into primary spermatocytes or primary oocytes", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Meiosis", "d": "cell divisions resulting in each gamete receiving 23 chromosomes (half of the 46 chromosomes from the primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Sex determination", "d": "the presence or absence of a Y chromosome", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Genotype", "d": "an individual’s genetic composition", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Sex differentiation", "d": "development of fetal reproductive tract", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Phenotype", "d": "functional sexual appearance; can differ from XX or XY genotype", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "SRY gene", "d": "sex-determining region gene on the Y chromosome; its expression triggers development of the testes", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Functional fetal testes", "d": "secrete testosterone and anti-müllerian hormone (AMH)", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Sexually dimorphic brain regions", "d": "may be linked with male-type or female-type sexual behavior", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Cryptorchidism", "d": "failure of testes to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Androgen insensitivity syndrome", "d": "Genotype is XY (inguinal testes present) but phenotype is female.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia", "d": "mutation in one of the fetal adrenal steroid-synthesizing enzymes responsible for cortisol production", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Early life (fetal and neonatal) experiences", "d": "Epigenetics or epigenetic programming can alter the expression of many genes in later life and in the subsequent offspring.", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Gonads", "d": "reproductive organs with dual functions of gametogenesis and secretion of sex hormones", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Gonadal function", "d": "controlled by gonadotropins (follicle-stimulating hormone [FSH] and luteinizing hormone [LH]) from the anterior pituitary gland", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Scrotum", "d": "outpouching of the abdominal wall; one sac for each testis", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Spermatogenesis", "d": "sperm formation in seminiferous tubules", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Rete testis", "d": "merger of seminiferous tubules into a network of interconnected tubules", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" }, { "t": "Epididymis", "d": "receives output from rete testis; stores sperm", "src": "textbook", "cite": "Vander's 16e · Ch 17" } ] }; /* merge textbook definitions into the existing flashcard decks (additive, labeled via .src/.cite) */ (function(){ if (typeof FLASHCARDS !== 'undefined') { Object.keys(TEXTBOOK_FLASHCARDS).forEach(function(k){ FLASHCARDS[k] = (FLASHCARDS[k] || []).concat(TEXTBOOK_FLASHCARDS[k]); }); } window.TEXTBOOK_QUESTIONS = TEXTBOOK_QUESTIONS; window.TEXTBOOK_FLASHCARDS = TEXTBOOK_FLASHCARDS; })();